Flammifer
Well-Known Member
Gandalf just says he disagrees with Saruman. “I have heard speeches of this kind before, but only in the mouths of emissaries sent from Mordor to deceive the ignorant. I cannot think you brought me so far only to weary my ears.” “Only one hand at a time can wield the One, and you know that well, so do not trouble to say we!” He states his own position, “But I would not give it, nay, I would not even give news of it to you, now that I learn your mind.” He makes no attempt to offer counter arguments or to persuade Saruman that he is going down the wrong track, or even to question Saruman as to why he is going down this track.. (Unless, “Have you others to offer?” is an invitation to Saruman to suggest other strategies.)
Why?
Later, after the Battle of the Hornburg, when Theoden and Gandalf converse with Saruman, Gandalf offers Saruman the chance to repent. He gives arguments as to why it would be wise for Saruman to repent. It almost worked. “For a second (Saruman) hesitated, and no one breathed.” But pride and hate conquered him and he refused.
So, even after Saruman had committed evil deeds, Gandalf was willing to urge him to repent and offer to let him go free without many conditions.
So, why no attempt to question or persuade Saruman earlier, when it is clear to Gandalf that Saruman is heading down a dangerous path, but has yet done little to act on those plans (as far as Gandalf knows).
Why does Gandalf seek to persuade Saruman to repent later, but not in the encounter related at the Council of Elrond?
Why?
Later, after the Battle of the Hornburg, when Theoden and Gandalf converse with Saruman, Gandalf offers Saruman the chance to repent. He gives arguments as to why it would be wise for Saruman to repent. It almost worked. “For a second (Saruman) hesitated, and no one breathed.” But pride and hate conquered him and he refused.
So, even after Saruman had committed evil deeds, Gandalf was willing to urge him to repent and offer to let him go free without many conditions.
So, why no attempt to question or persuade Saruman earlier, when it is clear to Gandalf that Saruman is heading down a dangerous path, but has yet done little to act on those plans (as far as Gandalf knows).
Why does Gandalf seek to persuade Saruman to repent later, but not in the encounter related at the Council of Elrond?