Flammifer
Well-Known Member
Gandalf seems to imply that Sauron can command the Three (even against the unwill of their bearers) and lay bare all that they have wrought (despite the resistance of unwill). "He only needs the One; for he made that Ring himself, it is his, and he let a great part of his own former power pass into it so that he could rule all the others. If he recovers it, then he will command them all again, wherever they be, even the Three, and all that has been wrought with them will be laid bare, and he will be stronger than ever."
The Ring inscription (incantation) also points to this objective: “One Ring to rule them all. One Ring to find them. One Ring to bring them all. And in the Darkness bind them.”
So, has Sauron managed to find a way to break the resistance of the unwill? Does he do it by Ring of Power, (two Rings of Power – his and his target’s) which the target has already accepted and used?
Or, was Sauron deluded? His Ring Magic could not work against unwill? It only worked on the Mortal Men to whom he gave Rings because they were willing? It did not work on Dwarves or Elves because they were not? In this case, is Gandalf wrong when he says that if Sauron recovers the One Ring, “then he will command them all again, wherever they be, even the Three, and all that has been wrought with them will be laid bare, and he will be stronger than ever.”?
Indeed, has Sauron realized that his Ring Magic failed to break the barrier of unwill? Gandalf says that Sauron, “knows now that it has not perished, that it has been found. So he is seeking it, seeking it, and all his thought is bent on it. It is his great hope and our great fear.” But, is Sauron bending all his thought on it? Is he ‘seeking it, seeking it’? We have evidence that Sauron is not seeking the Ring very urgently. It was at least a year (maybe much more) between Sauron learning that the Ring existed (from Gollum) and having the Nazgul cross the Anduin. Even then, it was about three months after crossing the Anduin before the Nazgul crossed the Isen and headed to look for ‘Baggins’ in The Shire. Did Sauron realize that repossessing the Ring was both useless to him, and unnecessary to his plans? Did Sauron only get urgent about reclaiming the Ring due to worry about it falling into the hands of someone powerful enough to set themselves up as a rival Ring-lord?
How are we meant to relate JRRT’s conception of the impenetrable barrier of unwill in ‘The Nature of Middle-earth’, to the conception in TLOTR that Sauron, through the One Ring, can ‘bind’ and ‘rule’ the other Rings, and, presumably, their bearers?
The Ring inscription (incantation) also points to this objective: “One Ring to rule them all. One Ring to find them. One Ring to bring them all. And in the Darkness bind them.”
So, has Sauron managed to find a way to break the resistance of the unwill? Does he do it by Ring of Power, (two Rings of Power – his and his target’s) which the target has already accepted and used?
Or, was Sauron deluded? His Ring Magic could not work against unwill? It only worked on the Mortal Men to whom he gave Rings because they were willing? It did not work on Dwarves or Elves because they were not? In this case, is Gandalf wrong when he says that if Sauron recovers the One Ring, “then he will command them all again, wherever they be, even the Three, and all that has been wrought with them will be laid bare, and he will be stronger than ever.”?
Indeed, has Sauron realized that his Ring Magic failed to break the barrier of unwill? Gandalf says that Sauron, “knows now that it has not perished, that it has been found. So he is seeking it, seeking it, and all his thought is bent on it. It is his great hope and our great fear.” But, is Sauron bending all his thought on it? Is he ‘seeking it, seeking it’? We have evidence that Sauron is not seeking the Ring very urgently. It was at least a year (maybe much more) between Sauron learning that the Ring existed (from Gollum) and having the Nazgul cross the Anduin. Even then, it was about three months after crossing the Anduin before the Nazgul crossed the Isen and headed to look for ‘Baggins’ in The Shire. Did Sauron realize that repossessing the Ring was both useless to him, and unnecessary to his plans? Did Sauron only get urgent about reclaiming the Ring due to worry about it falling into the hands of someone powerful enough to set themselves up as a rival Ring-lord?
How are we meant to relate JRRT’s conception of the impenetrable barrier of unwill in ‘The Nature of Middle-earth’, to the conception in TLOTR that Sauron, through the One Ring, can ‘bind’ and ‘rule’ the other Rings, and, presumably, their bearers?