Stori3D Past
Member
Almost caught up! I'm finishing Ep 104 and real-time is in sight!
So I loved the discussion about The Hobbit's "Last Homely House" transitioning to LOTR's "Last Homely House East of the Sea." And it made me wonder:
When did Tolkien decide the elves were leaving Middle-Earth? This sense that the elves are longing for Elvenhome, and that their time on Middle-Earth is coming to an end -- it permeates the published LOTR, from nearly the beginning. "They are sailing, sailing..." etc. But when did that happen in the writing? It wasn't there in The Hobbit was it?
It made me envision a Tolkien jotting down his first draft of LOTR, and he reaches Rivendell, and he has to recap it. And he starts writing, "The last homely house" ... and then by some inspiration that he then spends the next 35 years thinking & rethinking, he adds "... east of the sea."
Did something like that happen? Do we have evidence?
So I loved the discussion about The Hobbit's "Last Homely House" transitioning to LOTR's "Last Homely House East of the Sea." And it made me wonder:
When did Tolkien decide the elves were leaving Middle-Earth? This sense that the elves are longing for Elvenhome, and that their time on Middle-Earth is coming to an end -- it permeates the published LOTR, from nearly the beginning. "They are sailing, sailing..." etc. But when did that happen in the writing? It wasn't there in The Hobbit was it?
It made me envision a Tolkien jotting down his first draft of LOTR, and he reaches Rivendell, and he has to recap it. And he starts writing, "The last homely house" ... and then by some inspiration that he then spends the next 35 years thinking & rethinking, he adds "... east of the sea."
Did something like that happen? Do we have evidence?