Saruman

Twigle

New Member
I have been wondering for a long time…when did Saruman first realize that the one ring had not been washed out to sea?
 
I don't think he ever thought it had been washed out to sea - that is something he told the Council to mislead them and make them complacent, while he himself was actually looking for it.
Was he always deceptive even from the beginning? I think that is really the question. Otherwise I would agree with you.
 
In Unfinished Tales, it would seem that is true. But I agree with Corey that if you go by that story, Gandalf's going to Isengard when he gets the message from Radagast. Personally I think Saruman must have started out honest and earnestly began his studies of ringlore to figure out how to defeat Sauron. I think his studies corrupted him. The root of the problem for him was probably that the power of his voice made it possible for him to control others, and that could grow as he learned more - perhaps a hint of hubris.
 
But I agree with Corey that if you go by that story, Gandalf's going to Isengard when he gets the message from Radagast. Personally I think Saruman must have started out honest and
I think you left out the words "makes no sense" after "Radagast". But really, it makes little sense even if Sauruman (my fingers always make him a dinosaur, all on their own) Saruman started out good, or managed to deceive even Gandalf up until the encounter at Isengard. Heading straight to Bag End and grabbing Frodo for a quick run to Rivendell is a much better plan -- for everything except the story itself!
 
Yes, add "makes no sense." He would never have done that, especially without anyone knowing where he was going.
 
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